r/theydidthemath • u/No_Recording_3649 • 3h ago
[Request] What is the formula for expected number of balls over time?
1
u/JT_1983 3h ago
Just a very naive approach but if there are n balls, there are ~ n2 pairs of balls so you could expect the probability of collision to be ~n 2 as well. Taking a continuous time approximation this would give:
dn/dt = a n2
For some constant a depending on size and speed for example. The solution with n(0)=2 is
n = -1/(at-1/2)
This quickly goes to infinity at t = 1/(2a). Note that dn/dt ~ n already gives something exponential and ~ n2 is clearly 'worse'. Again naive, there is probably existing math on this (which I do not know).
1
u/Whiteminusblue 2h ago
https://www.reddit.com/r/interestingasfuck/comments/1w6820h/comment/p7l5iqn/
It was found that the derivative of the number of balls with respect to time is:
dn/dt = (n2 -n)/(R-r)2
Where n is the number of balls, and R and r are constants.
Therefore we can just write it as:
dn/dt = a(n2 -n)
Where a is a constant defined by the sizes of the balls and the circle.
With a bit of work we can get that at+C = the integral of 1/(n2 -n)dn.
This can be rewritten as:
at+C = Int((1-n+n)/(n(n-1))dn
which becomes
at+C = Int((n-(n-1))/n(n-1))dn
at+C = Int(n/n(n-1))dn - Int((n-1)/(n(n-1)))dn
at+C = Int(1/(n-1))dn - Int(1/n)dn
at+C = ln|n-1| - ln|n| + C_2
Giving us
at+C = ln((n-1)/n)
And
C = ln((n-1)/n)-at
(Removing the absolute values because n is always greater than 1)
Since we know that at T=0, n=2, we can determine C
C = ln((2-1)/2)-a(0)
C = ln(1/2)
Thus giving us
at+ln(1/2) = ln((n-1)/n)
From which we solve for n
eat+ln(1/2) = eln((n-1)/n)
1/2*eat = (n-1)/n
1/2*eat = 1-1/n
1/n = 1-1/2*eat
At last giving us
n = 1/(1-1/2*eat )
Or
n = 2/(2-eat )
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